[2025] Pass Cisco 100-160 Test Practice Test Questions Exam Dumps
Verified 100-160 dumps Q&As - 100-160 dumps with Correct Answers
Cisco 100-160 Exam Syllabus Topics:
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NEW QUESTION # 204
Which protocol is used for broadcasting and resolving MAC addresses to IP addresses?
- A. UDP
- B. ARP
- C. TCP
- D. ICMP
Answer: B
Explanation:
ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) is used for broadcasting and resolving MAC (Media Access Control) addresses to IP addresses within a local network. It helps devices determine the MAC address associated with a given IP address, enabling proper communication on the network. ARP operates at the data link layer of the OSI model.
NEW QUESTION # 205
Which technology is commonly used to monitor network data and identify security incidents?
- A. IDS (Intrusion Detection System)
- B. SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response)
- C. Firewall
- D. SIEM (Security Information and Event Management)
Answer: D
Explanation:
SIEM is a technology that focuses on monitoring network data to identify security incidents. It collects and analyzes security event logs from various sources, such as firewalls, intrusion detection systems (IDS), and antivirus software, to identify abnormal behavior or potential security incidents. SIEM solutions provide real-time monitoring, correlation, and alerting capabilities, enabling organizations to effectively detect and respond to security threats.
NEW QUESTION # 206
Which of the following features help to secure a wireless SoHo network from unauthorized access?
- A. MAC filtering
- B. Default admin credentials
- C. Weak encryption
- D. SSID broadcast
Answer: A
Explanation:
MAC filtering is a feature that allows a network administrator to specify which devices can connect to the wireless network based on their MAC (Media Access Control) addresses. By enabling MAC filtering, only devices with authorized MAC addresses will be allowed to connect, thereby enhancing network security. SSID (Service Set Identifier) broadcast refers to the network name being broadcasted, and hiding it doesn't provide significant security improvement. Default admin credentials should always be changed to prevent unauthorized access, making option C a weak answer choice. Weak encryption, such as WEP or TKIP, provides little security and should be avoided.
NEW QUESTION # 207
You work for a hospital that stores electronic protected health information (ePHI) in an online portal. Authorized employees can use their mobile devices to access patient ePHI.
You need to ensure that employees' mobile devices comply with HIPAA regulations.
Which safeguard should you develop and implement?
- A. A policy to govern how ePHI is removed from mobile devices
- B. A contingency plan
- C. An ownership policy for employees' mobile devices
- D. A policy that requires multi-factor authentication to use the mobile device
Answer: A
Explanation:
The CCST Cybersecurity Study Guide notes that HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act) requires that ePHI be protected both in storage and when devices are decommissioned or repurposed. This includes implementing data removal policies for mobile devices.
"HIPAA requires procedures for the removal of electronic protected health information (ePHI) from devices before disposal, reuse, or reassignment." (CCST Cybersecurity, Essential Security Principles, Regulatory Compliance section, Cisco Networking Academy)
NEW QUESTION # 208
Which malicious activity is NOT typically associated with cyber attacks?
- A. Data encryption
- B. Denial of Service (DoS)
- C. Phishing
- D. Malware
Answer: A
Explanation:
Data encryption is a security measure used to protect data from unauthorized access. While encryption can be utilized by cyber attackers to make stolen data unreadable, it is not typically considered a malicious activity in itself. Instead, cyber attackers may employ techniques like phishing, denial of service attacks, or distributing malware to carry out their malicious intentions.
NEW QUESTION # 209
Which of the following is NOT a benefit of maintaining a hardware inventory?
- A. Facilitates asset management and procurement
- B. Enhances the effectiveness of software inventory management
- C. Simplifies troubleshooting and technical support
- D. Eliminates the need for software updates and patching
Answer: D
Explanation:
Maintaining a hardware inventory provides multiple benefits, including simplifying troubleshooting, facilitating asset management, and enhancing software inventory management. However, it does not eliminate the need for software updates and patching, as those are separate activities required to maintain the security and functionality of software components.
NEW QUESTION # 210
Which of the following is an example of a network vulnerability?
- A. Running outdated and unpatched software
- B. Implementing a firewall
- C. Encrypting sensitive data
- D. Using a strong password
Answer: A
Explanation:
Running outdated and unpatched software is an example of a network vulnerability. Software updates often include patches to fix security vulnerabilities that have been discovered. Failing to install these updates or using outdated software increases the risk of an attacker exploiting known vulnerabilities to gain unauthorized access or compromise the network.
NEW QUESTION # 211
Why is monitoring security events "as they occur" important in the field of cybersecurity?
- A. It allows for rapid detection and response to security incidents.
- B. It helps in assessing the effectiveness of security controls.
- C. It prevents all potential security incidents from occurring.
- D. It ensures compliance with industry standards and regulations.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Monitoring security events "as they occur" is crucial in cybersecurity because it enables rapid detection and response to security incidents. By continuously monitoring and analyzing security events, organizations can identify and respond to incidents promptly, reducing the impact and minimizing potential damage. This proactive approach helps in minimizing downtime, data breaches, and other security risks.
NEW QUESTION # 212
What is the purpose of managing communication proactively before an event?
- A. To monitor and analyze network traffic
- B. To update antivirus software and security patches
- C. To prevent and mitigate security incidents
- D. To respond and recover from security incidents
Answer: C
Explanation:
Managing communication proactively before an event aims to prevent and mitigate security incidents. By taking preemptive measures such as implementing security controls, setting up secure communication channels, and educating users about cybersecurity best practices, organizations can reduce the likelihood of a security breach or incident before it occurs. Proactive management helps to identify and address vulnerabilities, ensuring a more secure environment for communication.
NEW QUESTION # 213
What is one of the main objectives of documenting cybersecurity incidents?
- A. To create a historical record of incidents for legal purposes
- B. To assign blame to individuals responsible for the incident
- C. To minimize the impact of cyber attacks
- D. To divert attention from the incident
Answer: C
Explanation:
Documenting cybersecurity incidents helps organizations understand the nature, extent, and impact of the incident. By documenting incidents, organizations can analyze trends, develop strategies to prevent future incidents, and minimize the impact of cyber attacks.
NEW QUESTION # 214
Which step should be performed immediately after identifying a critical vulnerability affecting internet-facing systems?
- A. Schedule a quarterly penetration test.
- B. Apply the vendor patch or mitigation.
- C. Change the default administrator passwords.
- D. Document the vulnerability in the annual security report.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The CCST Cybersecurity Study Guide states that after confirming a vulnerability is relevant and critical, the next step is to apply available patches or mitigations as soon as possible to reduce the attack surface.
"When a critical vulnerability is identified, remediation steps such as applying patches or configuration changes should be implemented immediately to prevent exploitation." (CCST Cybersecurity, Vulnerability Assessment and Risk Management, Vulnerability Remediation section, Cisco Networking Academy)
NEW QUESTION # 215
Which of the following is an industry-standard tool commonly used for vulnerability scanning?
- A. Microsoft Excel
- B. Apache HTTP Server
- C. MacAfee Endpoint Security
- D. Nessus
Answer: D
Explanation:
Nessus is an industry-standard tool widely used for vulnerability scanning and assessment. It enables organizations to proactively identify and assess potential vulnerabilities in their network infrastructure, operating systems, and applications. Nessus offers a comprehensive set of features, including asset discovery, vulnerability detection, and detailed reporting, making it a popular choice among cybersecurity professionals.
NEW QUESTION # 216
Why is updating documentation regularly important in the context of cybersecurity?
- A. All of the above
- B. To ensure compliance with industry regulations
- C. To maintain accurate records of security incidents
- D. To facilitate effective incident response and investigation
Answer: A
Explanation:
Updating documentation regularly is crucial in cybersecurity for multiple reasons. Firstly, it helps maintain accurate records of security incidents, which is essential for future reference and analysis. Secondly, updating documentation ensures compliance with industry regulations and standards, helping organizations avoid potential penalties and legal issues. Lastly, up-to-date documentation facilitates effective incident response and investigation, enabling swift action and minimizing the impact of cybersecurity incidents.
NEW QUESTION # 217
What is smishing?
- A. A form of social engineering attack that uses SMS or text messages to trick victims into revealing sensitive information.
- B. A cyber attack where an attacker manipulates and deceives an individual to reveal sensitive information.
- C. A physical attack where an unauthorized person gains entry to a restricted area by following closely behind an authorized person.
- D. A type of phishing attack that targets specific individuals or organizations.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Smishing, short for SMS phishing, is a social engineering attack that utilizes SMS or text messages to deceive individuals into disclosing sensitive information or performing certain actions. These messages often mimic legitimate sources, such as banks or service providers, and typically contain links or phone numbers that, when accessed or called, lead to malicious activities. Smishing takes advantage of the ubiquity of mobile devices and users' tendency to trust text messages.
NEW QUESTION # 218
Which of the following must be documented throughout the chain of custody process?
- A. Encryption protocols applied to protect the evidence.
- B. Timeline of events that led to the acquisition of the evidence.
- C. Names of all individuals who handled the evidence.
- D. Analysis methods used on the evidence.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The chain of custody refers to a documented record of all individuals who have had access to the digital evidence from the time of its discovery until its presentation in court. It is essential to know who has handled the evidence to establish accountability and to ensure that the integrity of the evidence is maintained. The names of all individuals involved in handling the evidence should be recorded, along with their respective roles and timestamps to establish a clear chain of custody.
NEW QUESTION # 219
What is a common vulnerability in Internet of Things (IoT) devices?
- A. Insufficient physical security measures.
- B. Lack of user access controls and authentication mechanisms.
- C. All of the above.
- D. Weak encryption protocols used for data transmission.
Answer: C
Explanation:
IoT devices often suffer from multiple vulnerabilities. Weak encryption protocols make data transmission susceptible to interception and unauthorized access. Insufficient physical security measures can result in the theft or compromise of the device itself. Furthermore, the lack of user access controls and authentication mechanisms can allow unauthorized individuals to infiltrate and manipulate IoT devices.
NEW QUESTION # 220
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